Practice Test: Middle School Mathematics/Science (77)
Suggested Testing Time: 4 hours
To Take This Practice Test
 Use the answer key to record your responses.
 Prefer to take it offline? You can print the questions and answer key.
Remember:
 The practice test can give you a good indication of how you may perform on an actual test, but there is no guarantee that your results will be the same as on the actual test.
 The actual test looks and operates differently than this practice test. In addition, this test includes one or more assignments that allow you to handwrite and scan your responses. Review the Testing Tutorials and Demonstrations for more information about the actual test platform.
 Formulas and a periodic table are provided onscreen with your actual test.
Question 1.
Given that a is irrational and b is rational, which of the following expressions could result in a rational value?
 a plus b
 a divided by b
 a raised to the power of b
 a minus b
Question 2.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A diagram shows three groups, each containing one rod and 4 unit squares.
Assuming that a rod represents x and a small square represents 1 unit, the algebra tiles shown in the diagram best represent which of the following expressions?
 3x plus 4
 3 times the quantity x plus 4
 the cube of the quantity x plus 4
 x cubed plus 4 cubed
Question 3.
If K is both a multiple of x and a factor of y, then which of the following statements must be true?
 k divided by y is a whole number.
 x over k is a whole number.
 y is a factor of x.
 y is a multiple of x.
Question 4.
Use the multiplication problem below to answer the question that follows.
The setup to multiply the number 1, Y, 3 and 24 using the standard algorithm is shown.
The variable Y represents a singledigit number between 0 and 9. Which of the following expressions represents the amount that Y contributes to the total product?
 20 times Y
 24 times Y
 40 times Y
 240 times Y
Question 5.
The division problem pen parentheses 2 times 6 to the sixth power plus 10 times 6 to the fourth power plus one half times 6 squared closed parentheses divided by 2 is equivalent to which of the following expressions?
 2 times 3 to the sixth power plus 10 times 3 to the fourth power plus one half times 3 squared
 2 times 6 cubed plus 10 times 6 squared plus one half times 6
 6 cubed plus 5 times 6 squared plus 1 fourth times 6
 6 to the sixth power plus 5 times 6 to the fourth power plus 1 fourth times 6 squared
Question 6.
Which of the following sets of equations best illustrates the concept that multiplication and division are inverse operations?

4 times 1 = 4
4 divided by (negative1) = negative4 
4 times 0 = 0
0 divided by 4 = 0 
4 times 8 = 32
32 divided by 8 = 4 
32 times 1 fourth = 8
32 divided by 8 = 4
Question 7.
A submarine is traveling 375 feet below sea level. It rises 183 feet and then dives 228 feet. If the submarine can come safely to the surface at 30 feet per second, approximately how long will it take to reach the surface?
 11 seconds
 14 seconds
 20 seconds
 26 seconds
Question 8.
An electronics store applies a 15 percent discount on a certain television, which is then followed by a 6 point 5 percent sales tax. If K represents the final amount a customer pays for the television, which of the following expressions can be used to find the original price of the television?
 the quantity 1 minus 0 point 1 5 times 1 point 0 6 5 k
 the quantity 1 plus 0 point 1 5 times 0 point 9 3 5 k
 k divided by the product of 0 point 8 5 and the quantity 1 minus 0 point 0 6 5
 k divided by the product of 0 point 8 5 and the quantity 1 plus 0 point 0 6 5
Question 9.
If x and y are whole numbers whose greatest common factor is 3, which of the following expressions is the least common denominator for 2 over x plus 5 over y?
 10xy
 3xy
 1 third x y
 1 tenth x y
Question 10.
Given that a over b is a proper fraction greater than zero, which of the following inequalities is true for all positive integer values of c?
 the ratio a minus b over b minus c is greater than a over b
 the ratio a plus c over b plus c is greater than a over b
 the ratio a b over b c is greater than a over b
 the ratio a divided by c over b divided by c is greater than a over b
Question 11.
Coasting down a hill, a bicyclist's speed increases at a constant rate of 0 point 7 5 mile per hour each second. If the bicyclist started timing the ride at the top of the hill when the speed was 5 miles per hour, how many seconds passed before the bicyclist reached a speed of 31 miles per hour?
 19and 1 half seconds
 23and 1 fourth seconds
 34and 2 thirds seconds
 41and 1 third seconds
Question 12.
Which of the following figures describes mixed number Awholes plus b over c in simplest form such that Abc = 8?

Three congruent bars are divided into fifths. The first bar has the first 3 fifths shaded plus the second bar has all fifths shaded plus the last bar has the last 3 fifths shaded.

Five congruent circles are divided into fifths. The first circle has 4 fifths shaded plus the second circle has a different set of 4 fifths shaded plus the final circle has a different set of 4 fifths shaded.

Three congruent squares are divided into eighths. Shown is the sum of the three squares where each square has the same 6 eighths shaded.

Four congruent circles are divided into fourths. The first circle has one fourth shaded plus the second circle has 3 fourths shaded plus the third circle has one fourth shaded.
Question 13.
Given that the points on each of the number lines shown below are equally spaced, on which of the following number lines does point D correspond with the fraction 1 fourth?

A number line is shown with 8 uniformly spaced points A through H. A is labeled 2 twenty fourths and H is labeled 2 thirds.

A number line is shown with 7 uniformly spaced points A through G. A is labeled 1 eighth and G is labeled 3 eighths.

A number line is shown with 6 uniformly spaced points A through F. A is labeled 1 twelfth and F is labeled one half.

A number line is shown with 5 uniformly spaced points A through E. A is labeled 1 seventh and E is labeled 3 sevenths
Question 14.
Use the table below to answer the question that follows.
Diameter (miles)  0  1  2  3  4  5 

Days  0  4  9.5  16.5  25  35 
The table shows the number of days an offshore oil well has been leaking as a function of the diameter in miles of the oil spill. Assuming that the pattern shown in the table continues, in how many days will the diameter of the oil spill be 8 miles?
 50 days
 65 days
 74 days
 82 days
Question 15.
Use the table below to answer the question that follows.
n  1  2  3  4 

value  2  negative6  negative14  negative22 
If the sequence of numbers continues using the same pattern, which of the following expressions represents the value of the nth term in the sequence?
 2 minus 8 n
 10 minus 8 n
 8 n minus 2
 8 n minus 10
Question 16.
A nurse administers 100 milligrams of a medication to a patient at noon. The amount of the medication in the patient's bloodstream decreases at a rate of 10% per hour. Which of the following types of mathematical function best describes the relationship between the number of hours since noon and the amount of medication in the patient's bloodstream at that time?
 exponential
 linear
 proportional
 quadratic
Question 17.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
The diagram shows a rectangle surrounded by a stone path, where x represents the narrower pathwidth along the short sides of the rectangle and 2x represents the wider path width along the long sides of the rectangle. The region containing the stone path and monument is a 20foot by 12foot rectangle.
The diagram shows how the rectangular base of a monument is surrounded by a stone path, where x represents the narrower pathwidth. The width of the stone path on the longer side of the monument is twice the width on the shorter side. If the region containing the stone path and monument is a 20foot by 12foot rectangle, which of the following expressions represents the area of the base of the monument in square feet?
 2 times the trinomial x squared minus 22 x plus 120
 2 times the trinomial x squared minus 26 x plus 120
 8 times the trinomial x squared minus 11 x plus 30
 8 times the trinomial x squared minus 13 x plus 30
Question 18.
Which of the following equations can be used to determine x, the number of liters of 15 percent acid solution that must be added to 3 liters of a 3 percent acid solution to obtain a 12 percent acid solution?
 0 point 0 9 x plus 0 point 1 5 equals 0 point 1 2 x
 0 point 1 5 x plus 0 point 0 9 equals 0 point 1 2 x plus 3
 0 point 1 5 x plus 0 point 0 9 equals 0 point 1 2 x plus 0 point 3 6
 0 point 0 9 x plus 0 point 1 5 equals 0 point 1 2 x plus 0 point 3 6
Question 19.
Which of the following graphs displays the solution set for the inequality negative 2 thirds times the quantity 3 m minus 2 is less than one half times the quantity m plus 1?

A number line is shown with an open circle on negative one third and a shaded line extending to the left.

A number line is shown with an open circle on negative one third and a shaded line extending to the right.

A number line is shown with an open circle on one third and a shaded line extending to the left.

A number line is shown with an open circle on one third and a shaded line extending to the right.
Question 20.
Use the graphs below to answer the question that follows.
Three graphs are shown. The first graph has vertical axis label "height" and horizontal axis label "weight", with point B at approximately 1, 1 and point A at approximately 4, 5. The second graph shows a vertical axis label of weight and a horizontal axis label of price, with point B at approximately 2, 5, and point C at approximately 5, 2. The third graph shows a vertical axis label of price and a horizontal axis label of height, with Point A at approximately 2 3 and Point C at approximately 4 3.
The height, weight, and price of 3 soup cans, A, B, and C, are compared and the results are shown in the graphs. Based on the information in the graphs, which of the following statements is true?
 Can C weighs the least.
 Cans A and B are the same height.
 Can B is the most expensive.
 Can A is the tallest.
Question 21.
Given that f of x = x squared and g of x = the quantity x plus 5 squared, which of the following statements describes the relationship between f of x and g of x?
 The graph of g of x is equivalent to the graph of f of x minus 5.
 Shifting the graph of g of x to the left 5 units results in the graph of f of x.
 The graph of f of x is equivalent to the graph of g of x minus 5.
 Shifting the graph of f of x to the left 5 units results in the graph of g of x.
Question 22.
The first part of a long car trip is made at highway speed. The driver then reduces the speed of the car in traffic, later resuming highway speed before exiting the highway and following local roads to the destination. The return home is at a steady rate on local roads. Which of the following graphs represents the relationship of distance from home, d, to time, t, for the round trip?

The first quadrant of a coordinate plane is shown with "Distance from Home, d" on the vertical axis and "Time, t" on the horizontal axis. The graph shows a line with the following characteristics, starting at the origin: a steep positive slope, then a lesser positive slope, then the initial slope, then a lesser positive slope, then a negative slope to the t axis.

The first quadrant of a coordinate plane is shown with "Distance from Home, d" on the vertical axis and "Time, t" on the horizontal axis. The graph shows a line with the following characteristics, starting at the origin: a steep positive slope, then a lesser positive slope, then the initial slope, then a lesser positive slope, then an even lesser positive slope.

The first quadrant of a coordinate plane is shown with "Distance from Home, d" on the vertical axis and "Time, t" on the horizontal axis. The graph shows a line with the following characteristics, starting at the origin: a steep positive slope, then a lesser positive slope, then the initial slope, then a lesser positive slope, then a vertical line to the t axis.

The first quadrant of a coordinate plane is shown with "Distance from Home, d" on the vertical axis and "Time, t" on the horizontal axis. The graph shows a line with the following characteristics, starting at the origin: a steep positive slope, then a zero slope, then the initial slope, then a zero slope, then the initial slope, then a zero slope, followed by a lesser positive slope.
Question 23.
A local school requires 3 teachers as chaperones for every 20 students attending a field trip. Which of the following graphs best relates x, the number of students, to y, the number of teachers, on any given field trip?

A graph of the line is shown in the first quadrant of the coordinate plane. The line has a y intercept of 12 and an x intercept of 80.

A graph of the line is shown in the first quadrant of the coordinate plane. The line has a y intercept of 60 and an x intercept of 9.

A graph of the line is shown in the first quadrant of the coordinate plane. The line has passes through the origin and the point 30, 200.

A graph of the line is shown in the first quadrant of the coordinate plane. The line passes through the origin and the point 100, 15.
Question 24.
Two points, negative 2, k plus 8 and 2, k, lie on line L. Which of the following expressions represents the xintercept of line L in terms of k?
 k plus 4
 negative k minus 4
 1 half the quantity k plus 4
 1 half the quantity k minus 4
Question 25.
Two lines, k and p, are parallel. If the equation for line k is 3 x plus A y equals B, and line p passes through the point negative 4, 0, which of the following equations represents line p?
 y equals 3 over A times the quantity x minus 4
 y equals 3 x divided by A all minus 4
 y equals negative 3 over A times the quantity x plus 4
 y equals negative 3 x divided by A all plus 4
Question 26.
Use the graph below to answer the question that follows.
A coordinate plane is shown. A series of lines intersect through the point 2 negative 3 on the graph.
Given that k is a slope value, the family of lines shown in the graph can be described using which of the following equations?
 y plus 3 equals k x minus 2
 y plus 3 equals k times the quantity x minus 2
 y equals k x plus 2 minus 3
 y equals k times the quantity x plus 2 all minus 3
Question 27.
A farmer triples the area of a square chicken pen by increasing its length by 4 meters and its width by 2 meters. Which of the following equations could be a step in the process of finding x, the side length of the original pen?
 x squared minus 3 x minus 4 equals 0
 x squared plus 6 x plus 8 equals 0
 2 x squared plus 6 x minus 8 equals 0
 3 x squared minus 2 x minus 4 equals 0
Question 28.
The graph of a parabola of the form y equals x squared plus b x plus c crosses the yaxis at negative36 and the xaxis at x = 3. At what other point does the graph cross the xaxis?
 x = negative12
 x = negative9
 x = 9
 x = 12
Question 29.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A net for a right cone is shown that depicts a sector for a large circle connected to a smaller circle. The sector for the large circle has a central angle of 60 degrees and a radius of 10 centimeters.
The diagram shows the net of a right cone. Which of the following expressions represents the area of the cone's base in square centimeters?
 25 pi over 3
 25 pi over 6
 25 pi over 9
 25 pi over 36
Question 30.
The edges of a small cube are scaled by a factor of 4. How does the surface area–tovolume ratio for the larger cube compare to that of the smaller cube?
 The ratio is smaller by a factor of 4.
 The ratio is smaller by a factor of 2.
 The ratio is larger by a factor of 2.
 The ratio is larger by a factor of 4.
Question 31.
The edge of a cube measures 10 inches, rounded to the nearest inch. Using the rounded length, a student calculates the volume of the cube to be 1000 cubic inches. Which of the following computations is most relevant to establishing the maximum amount of error in the student's reported volume?
 the cube of the difference 10 point 4 9 minus 10
 the cube of the difference 10 point 4 9 minus 9 point 5
 10 cubed minus 9 cubed
 10 point 4 9 cubed minus 10 cubed
Question 32.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
Two horizontal lines are shown. Triangle A B C is drawn between them such that vertex B is on the top line and vertices A and C are on the bottom line. There is a line segment B D that connects vertex B to a point D that is between A and C on the bottom line. There is also point E on the top line, to the right of vertex B.
Which of the following assumptions can be made about the figure shown?
 Point A is on
 line A C is congruent to line B C
 angle A D B is a right angle
 is parallel to
Question 33.
Triangle A B C is a right triangle with hypotenuse A B. Segment M N is drawn parallel to side A C with M on hypotenuse A B and N on side C B. If A C = 20, C N = 12, and M N = 12, what is the length of side C B?
 16
 18
 20
 30
Question 34.
Use the diagram and information below to answer the question that follows.
Quadrilateral A B C D is shown with diagonals A C and B D. The intersection of the diagonals forms an angle of x degrees.
If segment A D is congruent to segment A B and segment D C is congruent to segment B C, then which of the following statements must be true?
 segment D X is congruent to segment B X
 segment A X is congruent to segment C X
 angle D A X is congruent to angle A D X
 angle D B C is congruent to angle B D A
Question 35.
Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
Quadrilaterals are placed in the appropriate sections of a Venn diagram based on the properties of their diagonals, as shown below.
A Venn diagram is shown with three overlapping circles. One circle is labeled "diagonals are congruent", another circle is labeled "Diagonals bisect each other", and the third circle is labeled, "diagonals are perpendicular". The overlapping region that represents the intersection between "Diagonals bisect each other" and "diagonals are perpendicular" but not "diagonals are congruent" is shaded.
Which of the following quadrilaterals is included in the shaded section?
 kite
 rectangle
 rhombus
 parallelogram
Question 36.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A diagram shows a sphere inscribed in a cube. The radius of the sphere is r, and the side lengths for the cube are 2r.
A sphere is inscribed in a cube as shown in the diagram above. If the volume of the cube is 64 cubic inches, what is the approximate volume of the sphere?
 19 cubic inches
 33 cubic inches
 41 cubic inches
 50 cubic inches
Question 37.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A vertical line, L, is the axis of revolution for a composite shape that is formed by a rectangle connected to a quarter of a circle. The rectangle has dimensions z and 2z, and the radius of the quarter circle is equal to the length of the shared side with the rectangle, z.
The diagram shows a figure made up of a quarter of a circle adjacent to a rectangle that has dimensions z times 2 z. If the figure is rotated about line L, which of the following expressions represents the volume of the rotated figure?
 7 pi z cubed over 3
 8 pi z cubed over 3
 10 pi z cubed over 3
 14 pi z cubed over 3
Question 38.
Use the graph below to answer the question that follows.
Triangle A B C is graphed in the first quadrant of a coordinate plane. Vertex A is located at 8 8, Vertex B is located at 0 4, and Vertex C is located at 2 0.
Which of the following expressions represents the area of the circle that circumscribes triangle A B C, given that A C is the diameter of the circle?
 5 pi
 10 pi
 20 pi
 25 pi
Question 39.
For any triangular region, the center of mass is located at the intersection of its three medians. If the center of mass of triangle A0, 0, B14, 0, C4, 12 is located at k, 4, what is the value of k?
 8 thirds
 10 thirds
 6
 7
Question 40.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A trapezoid is shown in the first quadrant of the coordinate plane with vertex A at (1, 1), vertex B, vertex C at (5, 8), and vertex D located at (1, 8) There is a vertical line segment with endpoints E and F that is parallel to segment CB and bisects segment E C and segment A B. Another horizontal line segment connects point F to a point, G, located on segment A D.
Quadrilateral A B C D is constructed on a coordinate plane, as shown in the diagram. segment E F bisects segment D C and segment A B, and triangle A G F is isosceles. What is the area of the rectangle D E F G?
 10
 12
 14
 20
Question 41.
A bar graph would be the best choice for displaying which of the following sets of data?
 the percentage of total pieces of carryon luggage that fall within various weight ranges for a particular airline
 the relationship between the number of hours a group of students spend reading and their scores on a standardized verbal skills test
 the number of pairs of sneakers of each of six brands sold in a season by a particular sporting goods store
 the average weekly earnings for construction workers over the last 20 years
Question 42.
Use the stemandleaf plot below to answer the question that follows.
A stem and leaf plot is shown with stems 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4. Stem 0 has leaves 7 7 9 9 9. Stem 1 has leaves 0 0 3 4 4 8 8 9 9. Stem 2 has leaves 0 2 5 5 8 8 9 9. Stem 3 has leaves 2 5 5 8. Stem 4 has leaves 0 2 2 4. Key 1 to 0 equals 10
An athletic team plays ten games per season. The team's scores for the last three seasons are shown in the stemandleaf plot. What are the median score and interquartile range for these scores?
 median = 21, interquartile range = 19
 median = 23, interquartile range = 19
 median = 21, interquartile range = 37
 median = 23, interquartile range = 37
Question 43.
Use the data set below to answer the question that follows.
0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 2, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8
A human resources manager is compiling data on the number of sick days taken by employees during the previous year. The data are shown above. Which of the following statistics will be start bold least end bold affected if an employee who took 15 sick days is included in the data set?
 maximum
 mean
 median
 range
Question 44.
In a particular study, the heights of 50,000 16yearold students were found to be normally distributed with a mean height of 168 centimeters and standard deviation 5 centimeters. Approximately how many students had a height of at least 173 centimeters?
 8,000
 16,000
 34,000
 42,000
Question 45.
A state representative tracks constituents' communications by phone, mail, or email regarding a bill to be voted on. The representative counts 1500 total communications, with 70 percent in favor of the bill. Which of the following statements describes the validity of these results in representing the opinions of all constituents?
 The results must be valid because a large number of people made the effort to communicate with their representative.
 The results must be valid because all constituents have access to at least one of these methods of communication.
 The results may not be valid because a special interest group or groups may have been responsible for most of the favorable communications.
 The results may not be valid because the outcome of the vote for the bill is not yet known.
Question 46.
A student surveyed peers about two movies that were released over the weekend, a comedy movie and an animated movie. Of the peers the student surveyed, 55 percent of them had seen the comedy movie, 28 percent had seen the animated movie, and 14 percent had seen both movies. If the survey is representative of all students at the school, what is the probability that a randomly selected student saw neither movie?
 13 percent
 17 percent
 31 percent
 41 percent
Question 47.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A diagram is shown with an initial point labeled "box of markers". Three lines branch out from the initial point labeled "red", "green", and "blue". At the end of each of those lines there are two branches labeled "dry" and "not dry" for a total of 6 branches at the end of the diagram.
The diagram above shows the composition of a box of used color markers in a classroom. There are 2 red markers, 4 green markers, and 6 blue markers. Onehalf of the red markers have dried out, 25 percent of the green markers are dry, and 50 percent of the blue markers are dry. What is the probability that a marker randomly selected from the box will be dried out?
 3 twelfths
 5 twelfths
 6 twelfths
 7 twelfths
Question 48.
A student places in a bag a blue number cube and two red number cubes, each with 6 faces numbered from 1 to 6. A friend will select two number cubes at random and then roll them. What is the probability that the result will be two red number cubes with a sum of 3?
 1 fiftyfourth
 1 thirtysixth
 1 twentysecond
 1 eighteenth
Question 49.
In a bag containing only red and green grapes, there are 25 red grapes. After a child eats 5 green grapes, the probability of randomly choosing a green grape is less than 25 percent. What is the largest number of grapes that the bag could have contained originally?
 43
 39
 38
 31
Question 50.
A statistician is interested in determining the probability of getting at least one vowel (A, E, I, O, U) in random samples of the English alphabet. Which of the following simulations would generate data to answer this question?
 using a computer to randomly select 1000 fiveletter words from a dictionary
 assigning the numbers 1through 26 to the letters Ato Z and using a calculator or computer to generate 100 random sets of five numbers
 designating each side of five coins as either vowel or consonant and flipping the set of five coins 100 times
 writing each letter of the alphabet on pieces of paper and randomly drawing a group of fiveletter samples until a sample is drawn with only one vowel
Question 51.
Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
Students conduct an experiment to examine how the materials used to build a levee affect the ability of the levee to prevent flooding. As a first step, they use a water table to examine how quickly running water erodes model levees built out of sand, gravel, or soil.
Which of the following questions should the students consider to help determine which material would be most effective at preventing running water from breaching a levee?
 How does the material used to build the levee affect the shape and dimensions of the levee?
 What are the costs per truckload of each of the materials under consideration for building the levee?
 Which materials are readily available near the site of the levee versus which need to be transported from elsewhere?
 How does the material used to build the levee affect the ability of the levee to support vehicles on a road built along its surface?
Question 52.
Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
Scientists are working to develop an early warning system for volcanic eruptions. The system will rely on the existing seismic network that is already in place to monitor seismic activity surrounding active volcanoes. The seismic stations will automatically communicate their data to the relevant government agencies, where it will be immediately analyzed and formulated into three levels of warnings.
Which component of the engineering design process must be considered to finalize this warning system?
 defining the problem to be solved
 brainstorming and selecting a solution
 modeling and testing prototypes
 researching criteria and constraints
Question 53.
When evaluating an engineering design for a structure such as a bridge, it would be most important to take which of the following actions first?
 comparing the loadbearing strength of a variety of different materials that are being considered for the components
 calculating the necessary strength of components based on extreme, rather than normal, loads
 selecting materials for components based on the mean load expected on each component, rather than the mode or median load
 testing the strength of components by subjecting a physical model to a variety of loads
Question 54.
Students are designing a singleaxis mechanical arm for a simulated Mars rover. The arm should be able to grasp and lift objects. Which of the following tests would appropriately evaluate the effectiveness of each prototype, based on the project's goals?
 determining how large of an object can be raised to a set distance and height
 calculating the durability of the component materials in the arm
 moving the arm to perform various typical tasks
 timing the arm as it holds up one object
Question 55.
Patio furniture that is meant to be left outside can be made from several different types of materials: aluminum, steel, molded plastic resin, wicker, or rotresistant woods, such as cedar or redwood. Compared with the other options listed, steel possesses which of the following design feature advantages?
 superior resistance to rain and sunlight
 wider range of shapes and colors
 better comfort during all seasons
 greater strength and sturdiness
Question 56.
An auto repair shop has a number of tools, including a rivet gun for fastening body parts to the frame and a wrench for removing and replacing lug nuts on a tire. The shop also uses a large block and tackle for raising an engine block out of the engine compartment and a mallet to pound out dents in the car frames. Being able to measure the torque produced when using the tool would be most important when using which of these tools?
 mallet
 wrench
 block and tackle
 rivet gun
Question 57.
Which of the following scientific principles relating to the structure of materials most directly explains why diamonddust drill bits are used to drill holes in tile, porcelain, glass, or stone?
 The coefficient of friction between two materials depends on the smoothness of the surfaces that are in contact.
 The hardness of a material depends on the structure of its molecular lattice and the type of bonds between its atoms.
 The durability of a material and its resistance to fracture depends on the direction of cleavage planes within the material.
 The melting point of a material depends on the amount of energy needed to break the bonds between the molecules in the material.
Question 58.
Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
Hotdip galvanizing is the process of immersing steel in a bath of molten zinc. While the steel is immersed in the zinc, a metallurgical reaction occurs between the iron and the zinc. The end result is a multilayer coating on the surface of the object consisting of zinc and zinciron alloy, which is resistant to oxidation and corrosion.
Hotdip galvanizing is an example of which of the following secondary processes of manufacturing?
 conditioning
 finishing
 assembling
 forming
Question 59.
Use the table below to answer the question that follows.
Line  Tool  Safety Procedure 

1  handheld chisel  Secure loose parts on the tool before using. 
2  handheld wrench  Leave all guards on the tool while in use. 
3  electric belt sander  Make sure that the tool is sharp before use. 
4  aircompression brad nailer  Point the tool away from any person. 
Which line in the table matches a tool with the proper safety procedure to handle it in a workspace?
 Line 1
 Line 2
 Line 3
 Line 4
Question 60.
Advances in which of the following areas have most led to improvements in efficiency and reduction of emissions of internal combustion engines produced since the 19 eighties ?
 thermodynamics
 extraction of fuels
 aerodynamics
 embedded electronic microcontrollers
Question 61.
Cellphone technology has spread to many parts of the world that never previously had landlinebased telephone service. Which of the following qualities of cellphone technology is likely most responsible for this phenomenon?
 It provides the combined functionality of televisions, radios, and computers.
 It does not require an extensive ontheground infrastructure.
 It is able to transmit text, images, and videos in addition to voice.
 It has interchangeable software components.
Question 62.
Airlines use systems engineering to model the supply of and the demand for flights between various cities at various dates and times. These models require a variety of data inputs to determine what flights will be made available at what dates and times. Which of the following examples of quantitative information would most likely be a type of input data needed for such a model?
 passenger capacities of different airplanes in the fleet
 number of flights to be scheduled on a particular day
 net profits earned each day, broken down by region
 how much to charge for each seat on a flight
Question 63.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
An arrow diagram is shown with a microcontroller in the center. The photo re zis tor, power supply, and photoelectric sensor all point to the microcontroller. From the microcontroller, arrows point to the relay and then from the relay to a light bulb.
A person installs a system in their home that automatically turns certain lights off during the day and on during the night. Which of the following components of this system is a processing device in this system?
 microcontroller
 power supply
 photo re zis tor
 light bulb
Question 64.
Use the table below to answer the question that follows.
Measurement  Earth  Mars  Neptune 

Density ( kilograms per meters cubed )  5,514  3,933  1,640 
Year (days)  365  687  60,190 
Orbital Velocity ( kilometers per second )  28.8  24.1  5.4 
Orbital Inclination (degrees)  0.0  1.9  28.0 
Distance from the Sun ( 10 to the 6th kilometers )  149.6  227.9  4,503.4 
Gravitational Force ( 10 to the 22nd newtons )  3.54  0.17  0.07 
Which of the following factors best explains the difference in orbital velocity among the three planets shown in the table?
 the reduction in the density of each planet with increased distance from the Sun
 the decline in the gravitational force between the Sun and the planet with increased distance from the Sun
 the greater tilt of the orbit of each planet with increased distance from the Sun
 the greater length of the orbit and increased length of the year for each planet with decreased distance from the Sun
Question 65.
Which of the following statements best explains why a lunar eclipse occurs rarely instead of every time that there is a full moon?
 Earth, the Moon, and the Sun are seldom in alignment because the plane of the Moon's orbit is tilted relative to that of Earth.
 Earth, the Moon, and the Sun are usually lined up only during the day when Earth does not cast a shadow on the Moon.
 Earth only casts a shadow on the Moon at the points in its elliptical orbit when it is nearest to the Sun.
 Earth's shadow is usually too small to be seen on the disk of the Moon when it is full.
Question 66.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes why there are few fossils present in the fossil record from the Archean and Proterozoic eons?
 Populations of organisms in the Archean and Proterozoic eons were too small to be preserved in groups.
 Organisms in the Archean and Proterozoic eons inhabited environments that did not favor preservation.
 Individual organisms in the Archean and Proterozoic eons were too small in size to be preserved.
 Organisms in the Archean and Proterozoic eons generally lacked easily preserved hard body parts.
Question 67.
Growing salt crystals in a middle school earth science laboratory exercise would best help students understand the formation of which of the following types of rock?
 inorganic limestone
 sandstone
 metamorphic granite
 basalt
Question 68.
Which of the following provides the best example of chemical weathering?
 the slumping of unconsolidated sediments during a rainstorm
 the breakup of a granite outcrop from temperature changes
 the dissolution of limestone by groundwater
 the formation of talus slopes from frost wedging
Question 69.
The deflection of winds and the formation of ocean gyres are primarily caused by:
 the transfer of heat from the tropics to the poles.
 the backandforth movement of tides.
 the evaporation of surface water.
 the Coriolis effect.
Question 70.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A diagram entitled “Atmospheric layer” shows a stacked bar graph with a yaxis of altitude above sea level in kilometers. At the bottom of the bar graph, from 0 to 10 is the troposphere. Next, from 10 to 50 is the stratosphere and from 50 to 80 is the mesosphere. Above this from 80 to an undefined point is the ionosphere. Then, from the undefined point to 500 is the thermosphere. At the very top, from 500 until the top of the chart is the exosphere.
A scientist collects air samples to determine the degree to which the ozone layer has recovered from the damage caused by chlorofluorocarbon aerosols in the past. The altitude from which a scientist needs to collect the samples is approximately:
 5 kilometers above sea level.
 25 kilometers above sea level.
 70 kilometers above sea level.
 85 kilometers above sea level.
Question 71.
Which of the following is most directly caused by differential heating of the land surface and ocean surface?
 the changing strength of the trade winds in different seasons
 the early spring tornadoes that occur along the Gulf Coast
 the varying speeds of the jet stream over the course of the year
 the onshore breezes that develop on warm summer afternoons
Question 72.
During late February in southern New England, a warm precipitationproducing air mass moves into the region. Although the temperature of air aloft is well above average for the time of year, a thin layer of extremely cold air remains trapped at the bottom of valleys in the interior. Under these conditions, it is most likely that if steady precipitation falls in these valleys, it will be in the form of:
 snow pellets.
 wet snow that accumulates rapidly.
 heavy sleet.
 rain that freezes on impact.
Question 73.
During the 19 nineties , Doppler radar replaced the radar systems that had been in place for many decades. One of the primary advantages of Doppler radar over conventional radar is that it can be used to:
 estimate the water equivalent of falling frozen precipitation.
 measure the horizontal velocity of falling precipitation.
 calculate the total precipitation that falls over an area.
 measure precipitation intensity over a particular area.
Question 74.
Which of the following statements best explains why most potential sites for development of geothermal power plants in the United States are in the western part of the country, such as Nevada, Colorado, Arizona, and California?
 The western states have higher groundwater temperatures due to their drier and hotter climate.
 The western states have higher groundwater temperatures due to the greater tectonic activity there.
 Locating sites and drilling wells is easier and less costly in the western states because the crust is thinner there.
 Locating sites and drilling wells is easier and less costly in the western states because they lack thick vegetation covering the land.
Question 75.
Which of the following effects of global climate change is the best example of a "positive feedback loop" in the global climate system?
 Increased Antarctic Ocean temperatures lead to local increases in atmospheric water vapor, which falls as snow in the interior of the continent.
 Higher levels of carbon dioxide increase the rate of growth of forests, which increases the sequestering of carbon dioxide in wood.
 Warming temperatures melt Arctic permafrost, which releases methane and carbon dioxide from decomposing vegetation.
 Melting of the Greenland glacier causes fresh water to flow into the North Atlantic, which slows thermohaline circulation.
Question 76.
In a unit about natural disasters and their effects on communities, students are learning how to build a water purification filtration system using common materials. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in removing toxic compounds from the water?
 boiling the water
 bubbling the water with oxygen
 exposing the water to strong sunlight
 percolating the water through activated charcoal
Question 77.
Which of the following statements best describes one difference between the end result of meiosis and the end result of mitosis?
 Mitosis produces four daughter cells, while meiosis produces two daughter cells.
 Mitosis produces daughter cells that are considerably larger in size than the daughter cells produced by meiosis.
 Daughter cells produced by mitosis have both sets of chromosomes, while those produced by meiosis have only one set of chromosomes.
 Daughter cells produced by mitosis contain all the organelles of the parent cell, while those produced by meiosis only contain the parent cell's nucleus.
Question 78.
Which of the following characteristics of an unknown object would provide the best evidence that the object is a living organism?
 It possesses carboncontaining molecules.
 It is able to reproduce.
 Its temperature is higher than that of the surrounding air or water.
 It has a highly ordered structure.
Question 79.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A diagram of a cell is shown. The cell has a number of different membranebound compartments. One of these is a structure labeled X. X is roughly eggshaped, sits in the center of the cell, and is much larger than any of the other structures. X also has a small dark circle within it.
One of the primary roles of the structure labeled X in the generalized cell shown in the diagram above is to:
 control the concentration of ions in the cellular fluids.
 store nutrients necessary for cell functioning.
 contain the genetic material between cell divisions.
 provide a site for the breakdown of cellular waste products.
Question 80.
Whether the products of glycolysis undergo fermentation or cellular respiration during glucose metabolism is dependent on which of the following factors?
 the surface area of the cell
 the cell's immediate energy needs
 the presence or absence of oxygen
 the availability of light
Question 81.
Use the table below to answer the question that follows.
Day  Bird Sightings 

1  2 
2  3 
3  5 
4  10 
A teacher watches for different species of birds with their class outside their classroom window and records the number of bird sightings each day in the table shown. Which of the following graphs best represents the trend in the data over time?
 A graph of the number of birds sited for each day on the xaxis is shown. The slope appears exponential.
 A graph of the number of birds sited for each day on the xaxis is shown. The slope has a positive linear trend.
 A graph of the number of birds sited for each day on the xaxis is shown. The slope goes up, curves and turns back down.
 A graph of the number of birds sited for each day on the xaxis is shown. The slope has a negative linear trend.
Question 82.
Use the passage below to answer the question that follows.
A field in central New England where corn was grown is abandoned and left undisturbed. Initially grasses and weed species take over the field. Gradually, woody shrubs and species such as sumac and poplar become established, followed by white pines. After several decades, the area is characterized by a stable community of mixed hardwood trees dominated by oaks.
Which of the following processes is described in the passage?
 evolution
 biological magnification
 exponential growth
 succession
Question 83.
Which of the following structures in a flowering plant is best adapted for the function of receiving pollen?
 petal
 anther
 stigma
 ovary
Question 84.
The fur color of a rodent species is determined by a single gene with two possible alleles. The allele for black fur, big B , is dominant, and the white fur allele, little B , is recessive. A rodent with genotype big B little b is bred with a rodent with genotype little B little B . What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring from this cross?

25% black fur
75% white fur 
50% black fur
50% white fur 
75% black fur
25% white fur 
100% black fur
0% white fur
Question 85.
A DNA molecule is about to undergo replication. The base sequence of a small section of one of the original DNA strands is shown below.
A–A–G–C–G–T–A
What will be the base sequence of the corresponding section of the new complementary DNA strand that is formed?
 A–A–G–C–G–T–A
 T–T–C–G–C–A–T
 U–U–C–G–C–A–U
 C–C–T–A–T–G–C
Question 86.
Which of the following statements best explains how a given variant gene can be maintained in a large portion of a population, even if that gene does not directly confer an advantage?
 Genetic drift leads to the maintenance of variant genes through chance alone.
 Mutations can occur over and over at the same site and constantly feed new variation into a population.
 Recessive genes are not expressed in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.
 Natural selection facilitates the spread of some genes in a population at the expense of others.
Question 87.
The fact that mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA provides the strongest support for which of the following hypotheses?
 Organic molecules formed spontaneously under the conditions found on the early Earth.
 Aerobic organisms evolved after anaerobic organisms.
 Eukaryotes evolved as a result of endosymbiotic relationships among prokaryotes.
 Life on Earth first arose in the oceans rather than on land.
Question 88.
Which of the following observations provides support for the theory of evolution?
 A snowshoe hare's coat turns from brown to white as the winter approaches.
 A young lion becomes a more skilled hunter during its first years of life.
 A tree seedling develops a root system that allows it to cling to the rocky hillside where it germinated.
 A population of insects develops resistance to a particular pesticide over several generations.
Question 89.
Which of the following is an example of a pure substance as opposed to a mixture?
 alcohol
 milk
 gasoline
 blood
Question 90.
Water has a significantly higher surface tension than most other substances. Which of the following factors is directly responsible for this characteristic of water?
 the size of atoms in a water molecule
 the solvent properties of water
 the hydrogen bonding between water molecules
 the specific heat capacity of water
Question 91.
Use the reaction equation below to answer the question that follows.
H C L aqueous plus N A O H aqueous yields H 2 O liquid plus X
According to the principle of conservation of matter, which of the following is the chemical formula for the reaction product X in the equation shown?
 N A O H aqueous
 H C L aqueous
 N A C L aqueous
 O 2 gas
Question 92.
Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
Several materials are selected to test as thermal insulators in an investigation, whose steps are as follows:
 Boiling water is poured into a flask, which is then closed with a rubber stopper that holds a thermometer.
 The flask is placed into a box containing the first material.
 A timer is set and measurements are recorded every minute for ten minutes.
This procedure is repeated for the other materials being tested. The same flask, box, and amount of water are used for each trial.
In this investigation, the dependent variable is the:
 insulated material.
 time each trial takes.
 volume of heated water.
 amount of heat conserved.
Question 93.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
When 1.0 mol of helium at 298 kelvins is placed in the 10.0 liters container shown above, it exerts a pressure of 2.4 atmospheres . Which of the following changes to this system would lead to a decrease in pressure?
 increasing the temperature of the system
 adding additional helium to the container
 moving the piston to a lower position within the container
 removing some of the helium from the container
Question 94.
Use the table below to answer the question that follows.
Object  Mass ( kilograms )  Height Above Ground ( meters ) 

A  1  7.0 
B  5  3.0 
C  10  1.0 
D  20  0.25 
The table shows the results of an experiment when four objects are dropped from different heights. Which object has the greatest gravitational potential energy when dropped? ( P E = m g h , where g is the acceleration due to gravity at Earth's surface and g = 9.8 meters per second squared )
 object A
 object B
 object C
 object D
Question 95.
Use the graph below to answer the question that follows.
A graph of displacement in meters on the yaxis is shown versus time in seconds on the xaxis. The trend line starts at (0, 0), goes up in a linear manner to (6, 6), flattens out until (12, 6), then decreases in a linear manner until (14, negative 5), where it flattens out to (20, negative 5) and increases in a linear manner until (28, 5). From there it flattens out to (32, 5) and decreases linearly past (36, negative 2) and off the graph.
The graph represents the displacement of a truck at a construction site. Which of the following statements about the truck's movement is true?
 The truck stops moving at 24 seconds.
 The truck starts moving forward at 36 seconds.
 The truck has a constant acceleration at 6 seconds.
 The truck starts moving in a reverse direction at 12 seconds.
Question 96.
Which of the following dogs would be expected to put in the most amount of work to climb a flight of stairs?
 the largest dog
 the fastest dog
 the smallest dog
 the slowest dog
Question 97.
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
Two students hold a rope taut between them such that it appears to be a straight line. Above their heads, there is an arrow pointing towards each of the students.
The classroom activity shown in the diagram would be most appropriate for demonstrating which of the following physical science concepts?
 entropy
 net forces
 energy transfers
 conservation of matter
Question 98.
Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
A freebody diagram of a person pushing on a box along the ground is shown. The person is on the left of the box. Arrow 1 points from the left toward the right of the box. Arrow 2 points from the center to above the box. Arrow 3 points from the center to below the box. Arrow 4 points from the right to the left of the box.
In the freebody diagram shown above, a person applies a force to a box in order to slide it across the floor. If the box is sliding at a constant velocity, which of the following forces in the freebody diagram must be equal in magnitude?
 1 and 3
 1 and 4
 2 and 4
 3 and 4
Question 99.
Which of the following explains why white light separates into the different colors of the spectrum as it travels through a prism?
 Different frequencies of light move through a prism at different speeds, causing them to refract differently as they cross airglass boundaries.
 The prism magnifies the amplitude of highfrequency wavelengths more than lowfrequency wavelengths.
 Variable reflection of light entering the prism at different angles splits the light into different wavelengths.
 The prism polarizes the light waves as they travel through the glass, dividing them into distinct wavelengths.
Question 100.
Several lights are connected in a parallel circuit and one of the lights burns out. Which of the following statements best describes how the burning out of the light affects the other lights in the parallel circuit?
 Charge still flows through the burnedout light, providing the lights in the other branches of the circuit with electricity.
 The other lights continue to draw the same current since neither resistance nor voltage is affected in those branches of the circuit.
 Current is increased in the other branches of the circuit, so the lights will brighten as a result of the increased flow of charge.
 The branches of the circuit draw less charge overall because the burnedout light no longer draws a charge, reducing the brightness of the lights.
OpenResponse Items
The directions shown below represent what you will see on the actual test. For the purposes of this practice test, you will be able to type your written responses in the boxes provided on the answer key.
This section of the test consists of two openresponse item assignments. You will be asked to prepare a written response of approximately 150–300 words, or 1–2 pages, for each assignment.
Read the assignments carefully before you begin your responses. Think about how you will organize your responses. You may use the erasable sheet(s) to make notes, write an outline, or otherwise prepare your responses. However, your final response to each assignment must be either:
 typed into the onscreen response box,
 written on a response sheet and scanned using the scanner provided at your workstation, or
 provided using both the onscreen response box (for typed text) and a response sheet (for calculations or drawings) that you will scan using the scanner provided at your workstation.
Instructions for scanning your response sheet(s) are available by clicking the "Scanning Help" button at the top of the screen.
As a whole, your response to each assignment must demonstrate an understanding of the knowledge of the field. In your response to each assignment, you are expected to demonstrate the depth of your understanding of the subject area by applying your knowledge rather than by merely reciting factual information.
Your responses to the assignments will be evaluated based on the following criteria.
 Purpose: the extent to which the response achieves the purpose of the assignment
 Subject Knowledge: appropriateness and accuracy in the application of subject knowledge
 Support: quality and relevance of supporting evidence
 Rationale: soundness of argument and degree of understanding of the subject area
The openresponse item assignments are intended to assess subject knowledge. Your responses must be communicated clearly enough to permit valid judgment of the evaluation criteria by scorers. Your responses should be written for an audience of educators in this field. The final version of each response should conform to the conventions of edited American English. Your responses should be your original work, written in your own words, and not copied or paraphrased from some other work.
Be sure to write about the assigned topics. Remember to review your work and make any changes you think will improve your responses.
Any time spent responding to an assignment, including scanning the response sheet(s), is part of your testing time. Monitor your time carefully. When your testing time expires, a popup message will appear onscreen indicating the conclusion of your test session. Only response sheets that are scanned before you end your test or before time has expired will be scored. Any response sheet that is not scanned before testing ends will NOT be scored.
Question 101.
Use the information below to complete the assignment that follows.
A business is deciding whether to fulfill a customer's order for highly customized devices by using the services of their own manufacturing department or by arranging to have another manufacturer create the devices. The business will sell each device for $3500 regardless of who manufactures them.
In the process used by this business:
 700 dollars worth of labor and materials is required to begin the first stage of manufacturing for each device. Upon completion of this stage, the device is tested for quality.
 The company expects that 80 percent of the devices created will meet quality standards and proceed to the second stage. The rest are discarded.
 An additional 500 dollars worth of labor and materials is required to begin the second stage of manufacturing for each device. Upon completion of this stage, the device is again tested for quality.
 The company expects that 75 percent of the devices that get to the second stage will meet quality standards and be sold to the client. The rest are discarded.
Use your knowledge of probability to develop a response of approximately 150–300 words, or 1–2 pages, in which you analyze the probabilities of specified outcomes. In your response:
 draw a tree diagram of the situation, including all appropriate labels, and use it to summarize the net profit or loss associated with every possible outcome in attempting to manufacture a single device;
 predict how many total manufacturing attempts will be needed to create 3 devices that can be sold;
 recommend whether the business should attempt to create the devices through their own manufacturing department or purchase 3 completed devices from another manufacturer for 9000 dollars total; and
 discuss any influences that can cause variations in your recommendation.
Be sure to show your work and explain the reasoning you use in analyzing and solving the problem.
Question 102.
Use the information below to complete the exercise that follows.
Environmental and genetic factors can affect the size and growth of a pea plant.
Use your knowledge of life science to write an essay of approximately 150 to 300 words, or 1 to 2 pages, in which you:
 explain two key scientific concepts related to environmental and genetic factors that influence the growth of the pea plant;
 use a representative graph, formula, and/or diagram with all proper labels to model factors that influence the growth of the pea plant; and
 discuss the causeandeffect relationship between environmental and/or genetic factors and the growth of the pea plant.